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Gastrointestinal, endocrine and renal disorders

25 Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Gr II practice questions on Gastrointestinal, endocrine and renal disorders, part of Medical Surgical Nursing. The first 25 are below; the first 5 with answers and explanations (tap Show answer after you have chosen), the rest in Learn with a free account.

  1. Question 1 · Medium

    Metformin is usually withheld around a scan with intravenous iodinated contrast because of the risk of:

    1. ALactic acidosis
    2. BContrast allergy
    3. CSevere hypoglycaemia
    4. DHyperkalaemia
    Show answer

    Answer: A · Lactic acidosis

    Contrast can cause acute kidney injury, and metformin is cleared by the kidneys. If it builds up, it can cause lactic acidosis, which is rare but often fatal. Metformin is held at the time of the study in at-risk patients and restarted after about 48 hours once renal function is stable. Hydration before the scan also protects the kidneys.

    • B: Metformin does not raise the risk of contrast allergy.
    • C: Metformin alone rarely causes hypoglycaemia.
    • D: Hyperkalaemia is not the reason metformin is held.
  2. Question 2 · Medium

    Rifaximin is given to a patient with hepatic encephalopathy because it:

    1. AIncreases the excretion of bile pigments
    2. BLowers the pressure in the portal vein
    3. CReduces ammonia-producing bacteria in the gut
    4. DBinds and removes potassium in the stool
    Show answer

    Answer: C · Reduces ammonia-producing bacteria in the gut

    Rifaximin is a poorly absorbed antibiotic that acts within the bowel. By reducing the bacteria that make ammonia from dietary protein, it lowers blood ammonia and helps prevent recurrent encephalopathy. It is often used together with lactulose. The nurse also watches for precipitating causes such as GI bleeding, constipation, infection and sedatives.

    • A: Rifaximin does not act on bile pigment excretion.
    • B: Portal pressure is lowered by beta blockers such as propranolol.
    • D: Potassium binding is done by resins, not rifaximin.
  3. Question 3 · Medium

    Why is erythropoietin injection given to patients with chronic kidney disease?

    1. ATo correct anaemia caused by low renal erythropoietin
    2. BTo raise the glomerular filtration rate
    3. CTo prevent renal osteodystrophy
    4. DTo lower the serum potassium level
    Show answer

    Answer: A · To correct anaemia caused by low renal erythropoietin

    The kidneys make most of the body's erythropoietin, so CKD causes a normocytic anaemia that adds to fatigue and heart strain. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents are given subcutaneously or IV. Iron stores must be adequate for them to work. Blood pressure is monitored, since hypertension is a known side effect.

    • B: Erythropoietin does not improve kidney function.
    • C: Renal bone disease is treated with phosphate binders and vitamin D.
    • D: Erythropoietin has no effect on potassium removal.
  4. Question 4 · Hard

    On the first day after open cholecystectomy with exploration of the common bile duct, a patient's T-tube has drained 400 mL of bile in 24 hours. The nurse should:

    1. AClamp the tube to reduce the bile loss
    2. BRecord it as expected and keep the bag below the wound
    3. CRaise the drainage bag above the abdomen
    4. DFlush the tube with saline every hour
    Show answer

    Answer: B · Record it as expected and keep the bag below the wound

    A T-tube drains bile while swelling in the common bile duct settles. About 300-500 mL in the first 24 hours is usual, and the amount falls as bile flows into the duodenum again. The nurse keeps the bag below the wound, avoids kinks, and records the volume and colour. Drainage above about 1,000 mL a day, a sudden stop with pain, or fever and jaundice is reported. The tube is clamped only on the surgeon's order.

    • A: Clamping without an order raises duct pressure and can cause a bile leak or cholangitis.
    • C: A raised bag lets bile run back into the duct and raises the infection risk.
    • D: A T-tube is not irrigated unless the surgeon orders it.
  5. Question 5 · Hard

    A patient's blood urea is 150 mg/dL before haemodialysis and 50 mg/dL after. What is the urea reduction ratio (URR)?

    1. A75%
    2. B33%
    3. C67%
    4. D50%
    Show answer

    Answer: C · 67%

    URR = (pre-urea - post-urea) / pre-urea x 100 = (150 - 50) / 150 x 100 = 66.7%, about 67%. A URR of 65% or more shows adequate dialysis. A value of 33% comes from dividing post-urea by pre-urea, which gives the fraction left, not the fraction removed. Samples must be drawn correctly, with the post sample taken soon after the session ends.

    • A: 75% would need a post-urea of about 38 mg/dL.
    • B: 33% is post/pre urea, the fraction remaining.
    • D: 50% would need a post-urea of 75 mg/dL.
  6. Question 6 · Easy

    Pain in the right iliac fossa when the nurse presses on the left iliac fossa is called:

    1. AMurphy sign
    2. BCullen sign
    3. CRovsing sign
    4. DPsoas sign

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  7. Question 7 · Easy

    Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea are a sign of:

    1. AHaemochromatosis
    2. BAlcoholic cirrhosis
    3. CWilson disease
    4. DHepatitis B infection

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  8. Question 8 · Medium

    An elderly patient on glibenclamide is found sweaty and confused at night after skipping dinner. The likely cause is:

    1. AHyperosmolar state from dehydration
    2. BHypoglycaemia from the sulfonylurea
    3. CKetoacidosis from insulin deficiency
    4. DLactic acidosis from the biguanide

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  9. Question 9 · Easy

    Which insulin is used for an intravenous infusion in diabetic ketoacidosis?

    1. ANPH (isophane) insulin
    2. BPremixed 30/70 insulin
    3. CInsulin glargine
    4. DRegular (soluble) insulin

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  10. Question 10 · Medium

    To follow ascites accurately, the nurse measures the abdominal girth:

    1. AAt the widest point found each time
    2. BAt the same marked level each day
    3. COnly when the patient feels breathless
    4. DAfter a large meal each day

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  11. Question 11 · Easy

    Exophthalmos with a diffuse toxic goitre is typical of:

    1. AGraves disease
    2. BHashimoto thyroiditis
    3. CToxic multinodular goitre
    4. DIodine-deficiency goitre

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  12. Question 12 · Medium

    Which feature suggests hypoglycaemia rather than hyperglycaemia in a diabetic patient?

    1. ADeep, rapid Kussmaul breathing
    2. BCold, clammy skin with tremor
    3. CDry, flushed skin and thirst
    4. DFruity smell of the breath

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  13. Question 13 · Hard

    A diabetic patient on insulin is found unresponsive on the ward. Capillary glucose is 38 mg/dL and an IV cannula is in place. The nurse's first action is to:

    1. ARepeat the glucose test after 15 minutes
    2. BGive a sweet drink by mouth
    3. CGive IV dextrose as ordered by protocol
    4. DHold insulin and inform at the next round

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  14. Question 14 · Easy

    Fever with rigors, jaundice and right upper abdominal pain (Charcot triad) suggests:

    1. APeptic ulcer perforation
    2. BAcute cholangitis
    3. CAcute appendicitis
    4. DViral hepatitis A

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  15. Question 15 · Medium

    Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis usually follows a streptococcal throat infection by about:

    1. A3-6 months
    2. B1-3 days
    3. C1-2 years
    4. D1-3 weeks

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  16. Question 16 · Easy

    A patient recovering from acute cholecystitis with gallstones is advised a diet low in:

    1. AFibre
    2. BFat
    3. CCarbohydrate
    4. DProtein

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  17. Question 17 · Easy

    Repeated insulin injections into the same spot can cause:

    1. ALipohypertrophy
    2. BKeloid formation
    3. CHyperpigmentation
    4. DMuscle atrophy

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  18. Question 18 · Medium

    Multiple, recurrent peptic ulcers with a very high serum gastrin level suggest:

    1. AHelicobacter pylori gastritis
    2. BDumping syndrome
    3. CZollinger-Ellison syndrome
    4. DStress ulcer of critical illness

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  19. Question 19 · Easy

    Desmopressin is used in central diabetes insipidus because it replaces:

    1. ACortisol
    2. BAntidiuretic hormone
    3. CAldosterone
    4. DAtrial natriuretic peptide

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  20. Question 20 · Medium

    A patient newly diagnosed with coeliac disease asks which food is safe. The nurse names:

    1. ARye bread
    2. BWheat chapati
    3. CBarley soup
    4. DRice

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  21. Question 21 · Medium

    Which finding marks nephrotic syndrome rather than acute nephritic syndrome?

    1. ARed cell casts in the urine
    2. BProteinuria more than 3.5 g per day
    3. CCola-coloured urine
    4. DRaised blood pressure

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  22. Question 22 · Hard

    A man with cirrhosis has 6 litres of ascitic fluid drained by paracentesis. To prevent circulatory collapse and kidney injury afterwards, he should receive:

    1. AOral spironolactone
    2. BFresh frozen plasma
    3. CIntravenous 5% dextrose
    4. DIntravenous albumin

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  23. Question 23 · Easy

    Haemodialysis removes urea and creatinine from blood mainly by:

    1. ADiffusion across a semipermeable membrane
    2. BActive transport by the dialyser
    3. COsmosis of solutes into the blood
    4. DFiltration through the glomerulus

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  24. Question 24 · Easy

    Hepatitis A is mainly transmitted by which route?

    1. AFaeco-oral
    2. BNeedle-stick injury
    3. CSexual contact
    4. DBlood transfusion

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  25. Question 25 · Hard

    A 45-year-old woman has fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance and constipation. TSH is 18 mIU/L (0.4-4.0) and free T4 is low. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. ASubclinical hypothyroidism
    2. BPrimary hypothyroidism
    3. CSecondary (pituitary) hypothyroidism
    4. DGraves disease

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

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