Question 1 · Hard
A 28-year-old woman has had two episodes of depression, each lasting about 2 months. Last year she had 5 days of high mood, needing only 3 hours' sleep, starting many projects and talking fast. She kept working, was never admitted and had no psychotic symptoms. The most accurate diagnosis is:
- ABipolar II disorder
- BBipolar I disorder
- CRecurrent major depressive disorder
- DCyclothymic disorder
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Answer: A · Bipolar II disorder
Her period of elevated mood lasted at least 4 days without marked impairment, admission or psychosis, so it is hypomanic rather than manic. Hypomania plus at least one major depressive episode defines bipolar II disorder. One true manic episode would make it bipolar I. Recognising past hypomania matters, because antidepressants alone can trigger mania or rapid cycling, so a mood stabiliser is usually needed.
- B: Bipolar I needs a full manic episode with marked impairment, admission or psychosis.
- C: Recurrent depression is excluded once a hypomanic episode has occurred.
- D: Cyclothymia has mood swings below the threshold of major depression for 2 years; her depressions were full episodes.