Question 1 · Hard
A 30-year-old woman has confirmed Cushing syndrome: raised late-night salivary cortisol and 24-hour urinary free cortisol, and no suppression with 1 mg dexamethasone. Plasma ACTH is 85 pg/mL (raised). Pituitary MRI shows no adenoma, and CT of the chest and abdomen is normal. What is the next best step?
- ARepeat pituitary MRI after 1 year
- BBilateral adrenalectomy
- CPET-CT for an ectopic tumour
- DBilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling
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Answer: D · Bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling
The raised ACTH makes this ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome, and in a young woman a pituitary microadenoma (Cushing disease) is by far the commonest cause, even though many are too small to see on MRI. Bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling with CRH or desmopressin stimulation shows a central-to-peripheral ACTH gradient in pituitary disease and none in ectopic ACTH secretion. A positive gradient leads to transsphenoidal surgery.
- A: Waiting a year leaves her exposed to the harms of cortisol excess.
- B: Bilateral adrenalectomy is a last resort and needs lifelong replacement.
- C: Functional imaging for an ectopic source comes only if sampling shows no central gradient.