Question 1 · Medium
A 22-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks is seen in a district hospital antenatal clinic: Hb 10.4 g/dL, MCV 64 fL, MCH 20 pg, RBC count 5.9 million/µL, RDW 13% (reference 11.5-14.5%), serum ferritin 88 ng/mL; the smear shows microcytes and target cells. Consider four statements: 1. The Mentzer index favours beta-thalassaemia trait. 2. A full course of therapeutic oral iron will correct her anaemia. 3. HPLC showing HbA2 above 3.5% would confirm the likely diagnosis. 4. Her husband should be screened for carrier status. Which statements are correct?
- A1 and 3 only
- B1, 2, 3 and 4
- C1, 2 and 3 only
- D1, 3 and 4 only
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Answer: D · 1, 3 and 4 only
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Microcytosis with a high red cell count, normal RDW and normal ferritin points to beta-thalassaemia trait; the Mentzer index (MCV/RBC = 64/5.9, about 10.8) is below 13, whereas iron deficiency usually gives an index above 13 and a raised RDW. HPLC (or Hb electrophoresis) showing HbA2 above 3.5% confirms the trait, and the husband is screened because if both are carriers the couple needs counselling about prenatal diagnosis. Statement 2 is false: her iron stores are normal, so therapeutic iron cannot correct a genetic defect of globin synthesis and can cause iron overload over time.
- A: Omits husband screening, the key next step for a carrier in pregnancy.
- B: Includes therapeutic iron, which is wrong when ferritin is normal.
- C: Includes therapeutic iron, which does not correct thalassaemia trait, and omits husband screening.