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Perioperative, emergency, burns and cancer nursing

55 Staff nurse recruitment practice questions on Perioperative, emergency, burns and cancer nursing, part of Medical-Surgical Nursing. The first 25 are below; the first 5 with answers and explanations (tap Show answer after you have chosen), the rest in Learn with a free account.

  1. Question 1 · Easy

    In triage, a patient given a red tag belongs to which category?

    1. ADelayed: serious but can wait
    2. BExpectant or dead
    3. CMinor: walking wounded
    4. DImmediate: life-threatening but treatable now
    Show answer

    Answer: D · Immediate: life-threatening but treatable now

    Red tags mark patients with a life threat, such as airway obstruction or shock, who will survive if treated at once. Yellow is delayed, green is minor or walking wounded, and black is dead or expectant. Triage aims to do the greatest good for the greatest number. Patients are re-triaged because their condition can change.

    • A: Delayed patients receive a yellow tag.
    • B: Dead or expectant patients receive a black tag.
    • C: Walking wounded receive a green tag.
  2. Question 2 · Hard

    Ten days after chemotherapy, a patient has a temperature of 38.5 degrees C, absolute neutrophil count of 300 per cubic mm and stable blood pressure. The priority action is to:

    1. AWait for the chest X-ray before treating
    2. BStart the next chemotherapy cycle
    3. CTake blood cultures and start IV antibiotics within an hour
    4. DGive paracetamol and recheck the temperature in 4 hours
    Show answer

    Answer: C · Take blood cultures and start IV antibiotics within an hour

    This is febrile neutropenia, an oncological emergency. Day 10 is near the nadir, and infection can progress to septic shock within hours. Blood cultures are drawn and broad-spectrum IV antibiotics are started within 60 minutes. Signs of infection may be minimal because there are few neutrophils to form pus.

    • A: Waiting for imaging delays antibiotics.
    • B: Chemotherapy is held until counts recover.
    • D: Treating only the fever delays life-saving antibiotics.
  3. Question 3 · Easy

    Sterilisation of surgical instruments by steam autoclave is commonly done at:

    1. A121 degrees C for 15 minutes
    2. B160 degrees C for 1 hour
    3. C100 degrees C for 2 minutes
    4. D60 degrees C for 30 minutes
    Show answer

    Answer: A · 121 degrees C for 15 minutes

    Steam under pressure at 121 degrees C (about 15 psi) for 15 minutes kills all microbes, including spores. Moist heat penetrates better than dry heat, so lower temperatures and shorter times work. Flash cycles at 134 degrees C take only a few minutes. Indicator tape and biological indicators confirm each cycle.

    • B: One hour at 160 degrees C is a dry-heat oven cycle and is too short; dry heat needs about 2 hours at that temperature.
    • C: Boiling for 2 minutes is not sterilisation.
    • D: Sixty degrees C is pasteurisation level and does not kill spores.
  4. Question 4 · Hard

    At a bus accident, a man who is not breathing begins to breathe only after his airway is opened. Under START triage he is tagged:

    1. AYellow (delayed)
    2. BRed (immediate)
    3. CBlack (dead or expectant)
    4. DGreen (minor)
    Show answer

    Answer: B · Red (immediate)

    In START, a non-breathing casualty has the airway repositioned. If breathing starts, he is tagged red because he needs immediate care; if it does not, he is black. A respiratory rate above 30, absent radial pulse or inability to obey commands also give red. The tag is reviewed as care continues.

    • A: Yellow is for injured patients who are breathing and stable.
    • C: Black is only for those who stay apnoeic after airway opening.
    • D: Green is for the walking wounded.
  5. Question 5 · Hard

    During in-hospital CPR an endotracheal tube is placed. Ventilation and compressions should now be given as:

    1. ATwo breaths after every 30 compressions
    2. BFifteen compressions then two breaths
    3. COne breath every 2 seconds with paused compressions
    4. DOne breath every 6 seconds with continuous compressions
    Show answer

    Answer: D · One breath every 6 seconds with continuous compressions

    Once an advanced airway is in place, compressions continue at 100-120 per minute without pauses. Breaths are given asynchronously at one every 6 seconds, about 10 per minute. Over-ventilation raises chest pressure and reduces venous return. Waveform capnography confirms the tube and the quality of CPR.

    • A: Thirty to two is used only before an advanced airway is placed.
    • B: Fifteen to two is the two-rescuer child ratio.
    • C: One breath every 2 seconds is gross hyperventilation.
  6. Question 6 · Medium

    The cardiac monitor of a pulseless patient shows ventricular fibrillation. After starting CPR, the next priority is:

    1. AInsertion of a urinary catheter
    2. BAtropine injection
    3. CA 12-lead ECG
    4. DDefibrillation as soon as possible

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  7. Question 7 · Hard

    An 80 kg man with 30% burns reaches hospital 2 hours after injury having had no fluid. By the Parkland formula, the rate needed for the rest of the first 8 hours is:

    1. A400 mL per hour
    2. B800 mL per hour
    3. C1000 mL per hour
    4. D600 mL per hour

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  8. Question 8 · Hard

    A day after total thyroidectomy, a patient reports tingling around the mouth and the nurse sees a twitch of the face on tapping in front of the ear. The nurse should keep ready:

    1. ALevothyroxine for IV use
    2. BSodium bicarbonate for IV use
    3. CPotassium chloride for IV use
    4. DCalcium gluconate for IV use

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  9. Question 9 · Easy

    The correct first aid for a chemical splash burn on the skin is to:

    1. AIrrigate with plenty of running water
    2. BApply a neutralising acid or alkali
    3. CCover the area with butter or oil
    4. DBurst any blisters at once

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  10. Question 10 · Medium

    A patient receiving chemotherapy has a neutrophil count of 400 per cubic mm. The priority nursing intervention is:

    1. AEncouraging visits from children
    2. BTaking rectal temperatures
    3. CProtective isolation and strict hand hygiene
    4. DGiving fresh fruit salads

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  11. Question 11 · Easy

    Nail polish is removed before surgery mainly so that:

    1. AThe patient looks tidy in theatre
    2. BOxygen saturation and nail-bed colour can be read
    3. CInfection of the nail fold is prevented
    4. DThe surgeon can trim the nails

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  12. Question 12 · Medium

    A patient on cisplatin chemotherapy is given large volumes of IV fluid mainly to prevent:

    1. AKidney damage
    2. BHair loss
    3. CSkin rash
    4. DMouth ulceration

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  13. Question 13 · Easy

    The most important purpose of the surgical safety checklist 'time out' just before incision is to confirm:

    1. AThe correct patient, procedure and site
    2. BThe visitors allowed after surgery
    3. CThe surgeon's fee and billing code
    4. DThe anaesthetic machine service date

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  14. Question 14 · Easy

    The pads of an automated external defibrillator on an adult are placed:

    1. AOver the sternum and the abdomen
    2. BBelow the right clavicle and at the left apex
    3. CBoth on the upper back
    4. DOn both upper arms

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  15. Question 15 · Medium

    Hair at the operation site, if it must be removed, is best removed by:

    1. AWaxing a week before
    2. BClipping just before surgery
    3. CRazor shaving in theatre
    4. DRazor shaving the night before

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  16. Question 16 · Medium

    A patient brought from a house fire has singed nasal hair, hoarse voice and soot in the sputum. The nurse should suspect:

    1. AInhalation injury
    2. BPulmonary embolism
    3. CAllergic rhinitis
    4. DSimple anxiety

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  17. Question 17 · Easy

    In an unresponsive adult, a trained rescuer checks for a pulse at the:

    1. APopliteal artery
    2. BDorsalis pedis artery
    3. CCarotid artery
    4. DRadial artery

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  18. Question 18 · Easy

    The dose-limiting toxicity of most cytotoxic chemotherapy drugs is:

    1. ABone marrow suppression
    2. BHair loss and scalp tenderness
    3. CTaste change
    4. DSkin darkening

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  19. Question 19 · Medium

    After abdominal surgery, the best sign that bowel function has returned is:

    1. APassing flatus
    2. BLow urine output
    3. CWound pain
    4. DA dry mouth

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  20. Question 20 · Medium

    A circumferential full-thickness burn of the arm needs close watch mainly because of the risk of:

    1. AAn allergic reaction to dressings
    2. BHypoglycaemia
    3. CWhole-body hypothermia
    4. DLoss of distal circulation

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  21. Question 21 · Medium

    During a transfusion, a patient develops itching and hives with normal vital signs. After stopping the blood, the nurse expects to give:

    1. AAn antihistamine
    2. BIV antibiotics
    3. CIV adrenaline bolus
    4. DFurosemide

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  22. Question 22 · Easy

    The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is:

    1. AHydrocortisone intravenously
    2. BDiazepam intravenously
    3. CAtropine intravenously
    4. DAdrenaline intramuscularly

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  23. Question 23 · Hard

    A 50 kg woman has 36% burns. By the Parkland formula, the total fluid for the second period of 16 hours is:

    1. A7200 mL
    2. B4800 mL
    3. C1800 mL
    4. D3600 mL

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  24. Question 24 · Hard

    Morphine 3 mg IV is ordered. An ampoule of 15 mg in 1 mL is diluted to 5 mL with saline. The volume to give is:

    1. A5 mL
    2. B0.2 mL
    3. C3 mL
    4. D1 mL

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  25. Question 25 · Medium

    An elderly patient with heart failure gets breathless with raised neck veins during a second unit of blood. The likely reaction is:

    1. AMild allergic reaction
    2. BCirculatory overload
    3. CFebrile non-haemolytic reaction
    4. DDelayed haemolysis

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

30 more Perioperative, emergency, burns and cancer nursing questions

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