Question 1 · Hard
A 69-year-old man has a WBC of 168 × 10^3/µL (168 × 10^9/L), splenomegaly, a pleural effusion and a facial rash. Most blood cells are medium-sized lymphocytes with a single visible nucleolus and small cytoplasmic blebs. Flow cytometry: CD2+, CD3+, CD5+, CD7 bright, CD4+, CD8−, CD25−, CD26+, CD1a−, TdT−, CD34−; B-cell markers are negative. HTLV-1 serology is negative, and he has no erythroderma. FISH shows a rearrangement involving TCL1A on chromosome 14. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AT-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
- BSézary syndrome
- CAdult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma
- DT-lymphoblastic leukemia
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Answer: A · T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
TdT, CD1a and CD34 are negative, so these are mature T cells, not lymphoblasts. Bright CD7, retained CD26 and absent CD25 separate this disease from Sézary syndrome, in which CD7 and CD26 are usually lost and erythroderma is typical, and from adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma, which is strongly CD25 positive and HTLV-1 positive. A very high count, splenomegaly, effusions and skin involvement by prolymphocytes are typical of T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia. Rearrangement of TCL1A, usually inv(14)(q11q32) or t(14;14), is its hallmark. The disease is aggressive, and the cells strongly express CD52, a target for antibody therapy.
- B: Sézary cells usually lose CD7 and CD26, and the patient has no erythroderma.
- C: Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma shows strong CD25 and is HTLV-1 positive.
- D: T-lymphoblasts express TdT and often CD1a or CD34.