Question 1 · Hard
A 46-year-old man has had fever, night sweats, weight loss and aching wrists and knees for 6 weeks; he had a dental extraction 2 months ago. There is no joint swelling, but he has a new mitral murmur and splinter hemorrhages. Results: rheumatoid factor 88 IU/mL (reference below 14); anti-CCP 3 U/mL (below 17); ANA negative; CRP 96 mg/L (below 5); ESR 92 mm/h; C3 0.68 g/L (0.90-1.80); urine shows microscopic hematuria; anti-HCV nonreactive. The positive rheumatoid factor is best explained by:
- ASubacute infective endocarditis
- BHepatitis C-related cryoglobulinemia
- CSeropositive rheumatoid arthritis
- DSystemic lupus erythematosus
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Answer: A · Subacute infective endocarditis
Rheumatoid factor is not specific for RA: long-lasting antigen stimulation, as in subacute bacterial endocarditis, can drive IgM antibodies against the patient's own IgG. Fever, weight loss, a recent dental procedure, a new murmur and splinter hemorrhages point to endocarditis, and immune complexes explain the low C3 and the hematuria; a positive RF is one of the immunologic minor criteria in the Duke classification. Against RA, the far more specific anti-CCP is negative and there is no synovitis. Anti-HCV is nonreactive, which makes HCV-related cryoglobulinemia unlikely, and a negative ANA makes SLE very unlikely. At least three sets of blood cultures should be taken before antibiotics, and the RF usually falls after successful treatment.
- B: Anti-HCV is nonreactive, so HCV-related cryoglobulinemia is unlikely.
- C: Anti-CCP is negative and there is no synovitis, so RA is unlikely.
- D: A negative ANA makes SLE very unlikely.