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Upper limb joints, spaces and vessels

8 NEET-PG practice questions on Upper limb joints, spaces and vessels, part of Anatomy. The first 8 are below; the first 5 with answers and explanations (tap Show answer after you have chosen), the rest in Learn with a free account.

  1. Question 1 · Medium

    A 19-year-old is brought to casualty with a deep glass cut in the cubital fossa just medial to the palpable biceps tendon. There is brisk bright red bleeding from the wound. Which structure has most likely been cut?

    1. ABrachial artery
    2. BUlnar nerve
    3. CRadial nerve
    4. DMedian nerve
    Show answer

    Answer: A · Brachial artery

    From lateral to medial, the main contents of the cubital fossa are the biceps tendon, the brachial artery and the median nerve, with the radial nerve tucked laterally under brachioradialis. The structure immediately medial to the biceps tendon is the brachial artery, which divides at the neck of the radius into radial and ulnar arteries. Brisk arterial bleeding fits. The median nerve lies further medial and should be tested after the bleeding is controlled.

    • B: The ulnar nerve is behind the medial epicondyle, not in the cubital fossa.
    • C: The radial nerve lies lateral to the biceps tendon under brachioradialis.
    • D: The median nerve lies medial to the artery and does not bleed briskly.
  2. Question 2 · Medium

    A 24-year-old kabaddi player has had his right shoulder dislocate anteriorly four times in two years, each time while the arm was abducted and laterally rotated. MRI is done before surgery. What lesion is it most likely to show?

    1. ADetachment of the posterior glenoid labrum
    2. BFull-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon
    3. CTear of the superior labrum from front to back
    4. DDetachment of the anteroinferior glenoid labrum
    Show answer

    Answer: D · Detachment of the anteroinferior glenoid labrum

    Recurrent anterior dislocation in a young athlete is usually due to a Bankart lesion: the anteroinferior labrum and capsule are torn off the glenoid rim, so the humeral head is no longer held in front. A Hill-Sachs lesion, an impaction defect on the posterolateral humeral head, often accompanies it. The shoulder joint is inherently unstable because the glenoid is shallow and the inferior capsule is lax. Surgical repair of the labrum (Bankart repair) is the usual treatment.

    • A: Posterior labral detachment goes with posterior instability, not anterior dislocation.
    • B: Subscapularis tears are more typical in older patients after dislocation.
    • C: A SLAP tear involves the biceps anchor and causes pain more than recurrent dislocation.
  3. Question 3 · Medium

    A nursing student is learning venepuncture in the cubital fossa. Her tutor tells her to prefer the median cubital vein because a deeper structure protects the artery and nerve beneath it. Which structure is this?

    1. APronator teres muscle
    2. BBicipital aponeurosis
    3. CBrachioradialis muscle
    4. DBrachialis muscle
    Show answer

    Answer: B · Bicipital aponeurosis

    The bicipital aponeurosis is a sheet of deep fascia from the biceps tendon that runs medially to the deep fascia of the forearm. The median cubital vein lies superficial to it, while the brachial artery and median nerve lie deep to it, so the aponeurosis shields them from a needle. This is why the median cubital vein is the usual site for venepuncture. It is also why the old practice of venesection here rarely injured the artery.

    • A: Pronator teres forms the medial boundary of the fossa, not a covering sheet.
    • C: Brachioradialis forms the lateral boundary of the cubital fossa and does not cover the artery.
    • D: Brachialis forms the floor of the fossa, lying behind the artery and nerve.
  4. Question 4 · Hard

    A 32-year-old man in a district hospital has a gunshot injury to the right axilla with torrential bleeding from the axillary artery. A vascular surgeon is not available and the general surgeon decides that ligation is the only option to save his life. At which site is ligation least likely to cost him the limb?

    1. ABetween the thyrocervical trunk and the subscapular artery
    2. BBetween the subscapular artery and the profunda brachii
    3. CJust distal to the anterior circumflex humeral artery
    4. DJust proximal to the profunda brachii origin
    Show answer

    Answer: A · Between the thyrocervical trunk and the subscapular artery

    The scapular anastomosis links branches of the subclavian artery (suprascapular from the thyrocervical trunk and the dorsal scapular artery) with the circumflex scapular branch of the subscapular artery. If the artery is tied proximal to the subscapular artery, blood can flow round the scapula and enter the axillary artery again through the subscapular artery, so the limb survives. Ligation distal to the subscapular artery but above the profunda brachii cuts the limb off from this collateral route. Repair or a temporary shunt is still preferred whenever possible.

    • B: This segment lies distal to the subscapular artery, beyond the scapular anastomosis.
    • C: This site is distal to the subscapular artery, so the scapular collateral cannot refill it.
    • D: This site is below the subscapular artery but above the profunda, the most dangerous zone.
  5. Question 5 · Easy

    A 21-year-old college footballer falls on his outstretched hand. The wrist X-ray looks normal, but he has marked tenderness in the hollow between the tendons on the radial side of the dorsum of the wrist. Which bone is most likely fractured?

    1. ALunate
    2. BScaphoid
    3. CHamate
    4. DTrapezoid
    Show answer

    Answer: B · Scaphoid

    The hollow is the anatomical snuffbox, and the scaphoid forms the main part of its floor. Snuffbox tenderness after a fall on the outstretched hand is treated as a scaphoid fracture even if the first X-ray is normal: the wrist is immobilised and imaged again, or MRI is done. Blood vessels enter the scaphoid mainly at its distal part, so a waist fracture can leave the proximal pole without supply and cause avascular necrosis or non-union.

    • A: The lunate lies deeper, in line with the third metacarpal, not in the snuffbox floor.
    • C: The hamate lies on the ulnar side of the wrist, not under the snuffbox.
    • D: The trapezoid lies distal to the snuffbox and is rarely fractured.
  6. Question 6 · Hard

    A 63-year-old retired mason fell on his right shoulder. He can raise the arm passively, but when it is placed at 90 degrees of abduction he cannot hold it and it drops. With the elbow at his side, the arm springs back into medial rotation when the examiner releases it from passive lateral rotation. The lift-off test is normal. Which tendons are most likely torn?

    1. ASupraspinatus and infraspinatus
    2. BSupraspinatus and subscapularis
    3. CSubscapularis and teres major
    4. DInfraspinatus and teres minor

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  7. Question 7 · Medium

    A 58-year-old woman fractured the lower end of the right radius six weeks ago; it healed in a cast without displacement. While cooking she suddenly finds she cannot straighten the tip of her thumb. On examination, the tendon forming the ulnar (medial) border of the anatomical snuffbox is no longer felt. Which tendon has ruptured?

    1. AExtensor pollicis brevis
    2. BExtensor carpi radialis longus
    3. CExtensor pollicis longus
    4. DAbductor pollicis longus

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  8. Question 8 · Easy

    A 56-year-old house painter has pain in the right shoulder when raising the arm sideways between about 60 and 120 degrees; below and above this range the movement is painless. Which tendon is most likely involved?

    1. ASubscapularis
    2. BTeres minor
    3. CSupraspinatus
    4. DInfraspinatus

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

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