Question 1 · Hard
A 31-year-old man is evaluated for infertility. Semen: volume 0.7 mL, pH 6.6, no sperm even after centrifugation, fructose absent. His testes are of normal size. What is the most likely cause?
- ALoss of the first part of the ejaculate
- BPrimary testicular failure
- CCongenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens
- DRetrograde ejaculation
Show answerHide answer
Answer: C · Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens
Low volume, acid pH and absent fructose show that seminal vesicle fluid, which is alkaline and rich in fructose, is missing; what remains is mainly acidic prostatic fluid. With no sperm, this points to absent or blocked ducts, most often congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens, in which the seminal vesicles are usually missing or underdeveloped. The condition is linked to CFTR gene variants, so genetic testing and counseling are offered. In testicular failure, volume, pH and fructose are normal, because the glands still work.
- A: The first portion carries most of the sperm, but the later fructose-rich vesicle fluid would still be present.
- B: Testicular failure causes azoospermia with normal volume, pH and fructose.
- D: Retrograde ejaculation is shown by sperm in urine passed after ejaculation; it does not explain an acidic, fructose-free fluid.