Question 1 · Hard
A 41-year-old woman with heavy menstrual bleeding and iron deficiency anemia received 1,000 mg of intravenous ferric carboxymaltose 3 days ago. Two months earlier she was given 2 red cell units. Her doctor now orders iron studies to check the response. Results: hemoglobin 99 g/L (9.9 g/dL), serum iron 58 µmol/L (324 µg/dL; reference 9-30), UIBC 6 µmol/L (34 µg/dL), ferritin 940 µg/L (reference 15-150) and CRP 3 mg/L (reference < 5). The serum is not hemolyzed. What is the transferrin saturation, and how is it best interpreted?
- A91%; points to hereditary hemochromatosis
- B9%; iron deficiency is still present
- C91%; raised by the recent iron infusion
- D91%; iron overload from the transfusion
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Answer: C · 91%; raised by the recent iron infusion
TIBC = serum iron + UIBC = 58 + 6 = 64 µmol/L, and transferrin saturation = 58 / 64 x 100 = about 91%. In the days after an intravenous iron dose, iron released from the infused complex saturates transferrin, and ferritin rises as macrophages store the iron, so these results do not reflect body iron stores. Two red cell units add only about 400-500 mg of iron, far too little to cause overload, and hemochromatosis does not appear in a woman who was iron deficient days earlier. Iron studies are best repeated several weeks after the infusion, commonly about 4 weeks; until then the hemoglobin response is the useful measure.
- A: Her iron deficiency and the infusion explain the result; hemochromatosis does not appear within days.
- B: This divides the UIBC, not the serum iron, by the TIBC.
- D: Two units add only about 400-500 mg of iron, far too little to cause overload.