Question 1 · Hard
A 46-year-old woman has a singleton pregnancy from IVF with a donated egg; the donor was 26 at egg collection. At 12 weeks her first-trimester combined screen gives nuchal translucency 1.7 mm (normal for the crown-rump length), free beta-hCG 1.05 MoM and PAPP-A 0.98 MoM. The risk software, which was given the recipient's age, reports a trisomy 21 risk of 1 in 95; the program calls a risk greater than 1 in 150 screen-positive. The midwife asks why the result is positive when every marker is normal. What should the laboratory do?
- ARecalculate the risk using the donor's age
- BReport it as screen-positive and offer CVS
- CRepeat the blood markers in two weeks
- DSwitch to a second-trimester quad screen
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Answer: A · Recalculate the risk using the donor's age
The prior risk of trisomy 21 depends on the age of the egg, not the age of the woman carrying the pregnancy. With all markers near 1.0 MoM and a normal nuchal translucency, the combined likelihood ratio is low, so the high reported risk comes almost entirely from the prior risk of a 46-year-old. Using the donor's age at egg collection gives a far lower prior risk, and the recalculated result will very likely fall below the cut-off. Repeating the markers or changing to another screen does not fix wrong demographic data, and a false-positive report could lead to an unnecessary invasive test. Request forms should record egg donation and the donor's age.
- B: The positive result comes from the wrong age, so reporting it could lead to an unnecessary invasive test.
- C: The markers are already normal; repeating them does not correct the age used.
- D: A second-trimester screen would also need the donor's age; changing tests does not fix the input error.